1. If a computer on the network shares resources for others to use, it is called ____
a. Server b. Client c. Mainframe
2. Terminators are used in ______ topology.
a. Bus b. Star c. Ring
3. In _____ topology, if a computer’s network cable is broken, whole network goes down.
a. Bus b. Star c. Mesh
4. For large networks, _______ topology is used.
a. Bus b. Star c. Ring
5. ISO stands for
a. International Standard Organization
b. International Student Organization
c. Integrated Services Organization
6. ISO OSI model is used in
a. Stand alone PC b. Network environment c. Transmission 7. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories.
a. Server b. Client c. Mainframe
2. Terminators are used in ______ topology.
a. Bus b. Star c. Ring
3. In _____ topology, if a computer’s network cable is broken, whole network goes down.
a. Bus b. Star c. Mesh
4. For large networks, _______ topology is used.
a. Bus b. Star c. Ring
5. ISO stands for
a. International Standard Organization
b. International Student Organization
c. Integrated Services Organization
6. ISO OSI model is used in
a. Stand alone PC b. Network environment c. Transmission 7. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories.
a. four b. three c. five
8. ____ layer decides which physical pathway the data should take.
a. Application b. Network c. Physical
9. ISDN is an example of ______ network
a. Circuit switched b. Packet switched c. Message switched
10. X.25 is an example of ______ network
a. Circuit switched b. Packet switched c. Frame Relay
11. _____________ allows LAN users to share computer programs and data.
a. Communication server b. Print server c. File server
12. Print server uses ________ which is a buffer that holds data before it is send to the printer.
a. Queue b. Spool c. Node
13. A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency controls such as file and record locking is an example of____
a. LAN intrinsic software b. LAN aware software c. Groupware
14. The ______ portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activities and audit data etc.
a. Configuration management
b. Security management
c. Performance management
15. What is the max cable length of STP?
a. 100 ft b. 200 ft c. 100 m d. 200 m
16. What is the max data capacity of STP?
a. 10 mbps b. 100 mbps c. 1000 mbps d. 10000 mbps
17. Which connector STP uses?
a. BNC b. RJ-11 c. RJ-45 d. RJ-69
18. What is the central device in star topology?
a. STP server b. Hub/switch c. PDC d. Router
19. What is max data capacity for optical fiber cable?
a. 10 mbps b. 100 mbps c. 1000 mbps d. 10000 mbps
20. Which of the following architecture uses CSMA/CD access method?
a. ARC net b. Ethernet c. PRI d. ARPAnswer:
a. Application b. Network c. Physical
9. ISDN is an example of ______ network
a. Circuit switched b. Packet switched c. Message switched
10. X.25 is an example of ______ network
a. Circuit switched b. Packet switched c. Frame Relay
11. _____________ allows LAN users to share computer programs and data.
a. Communication server b. Print server c. File server
12. Print server uses ________ which is a buffer that holds data before it is send to the printer.
a. Queue b. Spool c. Node
13. A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency controls such as file and record locking is an example of____
a. LAN intrinsic software b. LAN aware software c. Groupware
14. The ______ portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activities and audit data etc.
a. Configuration management
b. Security management
c. Performance management
15. What is the max cable length of STP?
a. 100 ft b. 200 ft c. 100 m d. 200 m
16. What is the max data capacity of STP?
a. 10 mbps b. 100 mbps c. 1000 mbps d. 10000 mbps
17. Which connector STP uses?
a. BNC b. RJ-11 c. RJ-45 d. RJ-69
18. What is the central device in star topology?
a. STP server b. Hub/switch c. PDC d. Router
19. What is max data capacity for optical fiber cable?
a. 10 mbps b. 100 mbps c. 1000 mbps d. 10000 mbps
20. Which of the following architecture uses CSMA/CD access method?
a. ARC net b. Ethernet c. PRI d. ARPAnswer:
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a
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b
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b
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b
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c
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11
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13
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18
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19
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20
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c
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b
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a
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b
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d
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b
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c
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b
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c
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b
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Part-2
1. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another.A) Physical B) transport C) network D) none of the above
2. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol.
A) Reliable B) connection-oriented C) both a and b D) none of the above
3. _______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from the upper layer.
A) TCP B) UDP C) IP D) none of the above
4. __________ provides full transport layer services to applications.
A) TCP B) UDP C) ARP D) none of the above
5. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
A) port B) physical C) logical D) none of the above
6. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network interface card (NIC).
A) 32-bit B) 64-bit C) 6-byte D) none of the above
7. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long.
A) 32 B) 48 C) 16 D) none of the above
8. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which allows diverse systems to communicate.
A) OSI B) ISO C) IEEE D) none of the above
9. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development of universally compatible networking protocols.
A) OSI B) ISO C) IEEE D) none of the above
10. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support layers.
A) user B) network C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
11. The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support layers.
A) user B) network C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
12. The _______ layer links the network support layers and the user support layers.
A) transport B) network C) data link D) session
13. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream over a physical medium
A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical
14. The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data units from one station to the next without errors.
A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical
15. The ______ layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet across multiple network links.
A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical
16. The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery of the entire message.
A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical
17. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between communicating devices.
A) transport B) network C) session D) physical
18. The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices through transformation of data into a mutually agreed upon format.
A) transport B) network C) data link D) presentation
19. The _________ layer enables the users to access the network.
A) transport B) application C) data link D) physical
20. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI model.
A) seven-layer; before
B) five-layer; before
C) six-layer; before
D) five-layer; after
21. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI model.
A) application B) network C) data link D) physical
22. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
A) physical B) IP C) port D) specific
23. The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet.
A) physical B) IP C) port D) specific
24. The_____ address identifies a process on a host.A) physical B) IP C) port D) specific
Answrs:
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a
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Part-3
1. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in response to demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early 1990s.
A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above
2. Frame Relay provides ________.
A) PVCs B) SVCs C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
3. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______.
A) PVC B) SVC C) DLCIs D) none of the above
4. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry is recorded for all switches by the administrator
A) PVC B) SVC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
5. In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires establishing and terminating phases
A) a PVC B) an SVC C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
6. Frame Relay has _______.
A) only the physical layer
B) only the data link
C) the physical and data link layers
D) the physical, data link, and network layers
7. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports _____control.
A) flow B) error C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
8. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes.
A) only 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 2 to 4 D) none of the above
9.In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in the last byte of the address.
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
10.To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device called a _________.
A) VOFR B) FRAD C) MUX D) none of the above
11. Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that sends voice through the network.
A) VOFR B) FRAD C) MUX D) none of the above
12. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU-T.
A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above
13. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information.
A) frame B) packet C) cell D) none of the above
14. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________.
A) VPI B) VCI C) DLCI D) a combination of (a) and (b)
15. The ATM standard defines ______ layers.
A) two B) three C) four D) five
16. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length.
A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24
17. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length.
A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24
18. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes.
A) 40 B) 50 C) 52 D) 53
19. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size packets.
A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) all of the above
20. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch.
A) UNI B) NNI C) NNN D) None of the above
21. _________ is the interface between two ATM switches.
A) UNI B) NNI C) NNN D) none of the above
22. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through _______.
A) TPs B) VPs C) VCs D) all of the above
23. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps them into ATM cells.
A) physical B) ATM C) AAL D) none of the above
24. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and multiplexing services.
A) physical B) ATM C) AAL D) none of the above
25. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission, encoding, and electrical-to-optical transformation.
A) physical B) ATM layer C) AAL D) none of the above
26. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers.
A) two B) three C) four D) none of the above
27. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data.
A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5
28. In ATM, _______is for short packets.
A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5
29. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit approach or datagram approach).
A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D AAL5
30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error control mechanism.
A) AAL1 B) AAL2 C) AAL3/4 D) AAL5
31. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN).
A) X.25 B) Frame Relay C) ATM D) none of the above
32. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations.
A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above
33. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs uses ATM technology.
A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above
34. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy ATM LAN.
A) pure B) legacy C) mixed architecture D) none of the above
ANSWERS:
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21
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B
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C
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A
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D
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C
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B
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B
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A
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C
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D
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B
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B
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D
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22
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D
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Part-4 | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
1- The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _______.
A) modulation B) encoding C) line discipline D) multiplexing
2. Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals?
A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) (a) and (c)
3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?
A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) None of the above
4. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency?
A) FDM B) TDM C) Both (a) and (b) D) None of the above
5. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains _______ slots.
A) n B) n + 1 C) n – 1 D) 0 to n
6. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources.
A) greater than B) less than C) equal to D) not related to
7. Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams?
A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) none of the above
8. _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific goals.
A) Frequency B) Bandwidth C) Amplitude D) None of the above
9.________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by using spreading.
A) Efficiency; privacy and antijamming
B) Privacy and antijamming; efficiency
C) Privacy and efficiency; antijamming
D) Efficiency and antijamming; privacy
10. ________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals across a single data link.
A) Demodulating B) Multiplexing C) Compressing D) None of the above
11. In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link.
A) 1; n B) 1; 1 C) n; 1 D) n; n
12. The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a transmission.
A) channel; link B) link; channel C) line; channel D) line; link
13. ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater than the combined bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted.
A) TDM B) FDM C) Both (a) or (b) D) Neither (a) or (b)
14. FSM is an _________technique.
A) analog B) digital C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above
15. ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable.
A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) None of the above
16. ______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals.
A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) None of the above
17. _____ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high bandwidth of a link.
A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) None of the above
18. _____ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate channels into one high-rate one.
A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) None of the above
19. We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or statistical.
A) FDM B) TDM C) WDM D) none of the above
20. In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output even if it is not sending data.
A) synchronous B) statistical C) isochronous D) none of the above
21. In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth efficiency.
A) synchronous B) statistical C) isochronous D) none of the above
22 . In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a larger bandwidth.
A) spread spectrum B) line coding C) block coding D) none of the above
23. _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the medium without interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a malicious intruder.
A) Spread spectrum B) Multiplexing C) Modulation D) None of the above.
24. The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are modulated by the source signal. At one moment, the sign modulates one carrier frequency; at the next moment, the signal modulates another carrier frequency.
A) FDM B) DSSS C) FHSS D) TDM
25. The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing each data bit with n bits.
A) FDM B) DSSS C) FHSS D) TDM
ANSWERS:
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Part-5
1. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
A) Protocol B) Medium C) Signal D) All the above
2. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the _______.
A) Medium B) Protocol C) Message D) Transmission
3. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the _______of a network.
A) Performance B) Reliability C) Security D) Feasibility
4. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.
A) Performance B) Reliability C) Security D) All the above
5. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?
A) Mesh B) Star C) Bus D) Ring
6. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?
A) Mesh B) Star C) Bus D) Ring
7. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.
A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) automatic
8. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.
A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) automatic
9. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.
A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) primary D) secondary
10. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link.
A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) primary D) secondary
11. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices at all times.
A) simplex b B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) half-simplex
12. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together.
A) IMPs B) host computers C) networks D) routers
13. This was the first network.
A) CSNET B) NSFNET C) ANSNET D) ARPANET
14. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field?
A) ITU-T B) IEEE C) FCC D) ISOC
15. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize new technologies.
A) Forums B) Regulatory agencies C) Standards organizations D) All of the above
16
. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and electronic signaling specifications? A) EIA B) ITU-T C) ANSI D) ISO 17. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet. A) TCP/IP B) NCP C) UNIX D) ACM 18. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they are presented. A) Semantics B) Syntax C) Timing D) All of the above 19. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation. A) Semantics B) Syntax C) Timing D) None of the above 20. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast it can be sent. A) Semantics B) Syntax C) Timing D) none of the above 21. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) all of the above 22. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link. A) multipoint B) point-to-point C) (a) and (b) D) none of the above 23. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link. A) multipoint B) point-to-point C) (a) and (b) D) none of the above 24. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network. A) Data flow B) Mode of operation C) Topology D) None of the above 25. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology. A) mesh B) ring C) bus D) all of the above 26. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or between nearby buildings. A) MAN B) LAN C) WAN D) none of the above 27. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world. A) MAN B) LAN C) WAN D) none of the above 28. ________ is a collection of many separate networks. A) A WAN B) An internet C) a LAN D) None of the above 29. There are ______________ Internet service providers. A) local B) regional C) national and international D) all of the above 30. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication. A) forum B) protocol C) standard D) none of the above 31. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard. A) RCF B) RFC C) ID D) none of the above
==========answers=============
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MCQ’s of Ethernet:
1. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111?
A) 5A:88: AA:18:55:F0
B) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
C) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
D) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
2. If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address.
A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) any of the above
3. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address.
A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) any of the above
4. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination?
A) 43:7B:6C: DE:10:00
B) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32
C) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4
D) 48:32:21:21:4D:34
5. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination?
A) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00
B) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
C) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
D) 83:32:21:21:4D:34
6. _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol.
A) Token Ring B) Token Bus C) Ethernet D) none of the above
7. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the access method for first-generation 10-Mbps Ethernet.
A) 1-persistent B) p-persistent C) non-persistent D) none of the above
8. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer.
A) data link B) physical C) network D) none of the above
9. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and framing.
A) LLC B) MII C) MAC D) none of the above
10. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted on its network interface card (NIC).
A) 5-byte B) 32-bit C) 48-bit D) none of the above
11. The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes.
A) 32 B) 80 C) 128 D) none of the above
12. The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes.
A) 1518 B) 1500 C) 1200 D) none of the above
13. _________ uses thick coaxial cable.
A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F
14. __________ uses thin coaxial cable.
A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F
15. _________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a common hub.
A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F
16. ________ uses fiber-optic cable.
A) 10Base5 B) 10Base2 C) 10Base-T D) 10Base-F
17. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.
A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000
18. In _________, auto negotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data rate of operation.
A) Standard B) Fast Ethernet C) Gigabit Ethernet D) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet
19. __________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable.
A) 100Base-TX B) 100Base-FX C) 100Base-T4 D) none of the above
20. _________ uses two fiber-optic cables.
A) 100Base-TX B) 100Base-FX C) 100Base-T4 D) none of the above
21. _________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, or higher, twisted-pair cable.
A) 100Base-TX B) 100Base-FX C) 100Base-T4 D) none of the above
22. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.
A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000
23. Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode.
A) half-duplex B) full-duplex C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
24. __________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave laser source,
A) 1000Base-SX B) 1000Base-LX C) 1000Base-T D) none of the above
25. __________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave laser source.
A) 1000Base-SX B) 1000Base-LX C) 1000Base-T D) none of the above
26. __________ uses four twisted pairs.
A) 1000Base-SX B) 1000Base-LX C) 1000Base-T D) none of the above
27. ________ uses short-wave 850-nm multimode fiber.
A) 10GBase-S B) 10GBase-L C) 10GBase-E D) none of the above
28. ________uses long-wave 1310-nm single mode fiber.
A) 10GBase-S B) 10GBase-L C) 10GBase-E D) none of the above
29. ________ uses 1550-mm single mode fiber.
A) 10GBase-S B) 10GBase-L C) 10GBase-E D) none of the above
30. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address is _________.
A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above
31. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address is _________.
A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above
32. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________.
A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above
33. ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is somewhat similar to that of HDLC.
A) MAC B) LLC C) LLU D) none of the above
34. The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error control for the upper-layer protocols that actually demand these services
A) MAC B) LLC C) LLU D) none of the above
35. In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer and is not (formally) part of the frame.
A) CRC B) preamble C) address D) none of the above
ANSWERS:
1
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2
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3
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4
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5
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6
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7
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8
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9
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10
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11
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12
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13
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14
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15
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16
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17
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18
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19
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20
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21
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D
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B
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A
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A
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C
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C
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A
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A
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C
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C
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D
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A
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A
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B
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C
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D
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B
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B
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A
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B
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C
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22
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23
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24
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25
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26
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27
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28
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29
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30
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31
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32
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33
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34
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35
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C
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C
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A
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B
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C
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A
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B
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C
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A
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B
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C
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B
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B
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B
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